1. The Na+-K+ pump:
a. Is a peripheral membrane protein
b. In the nephron of the kidney is inhibited by aldosterone
c. Is important in maintaining the resting potential of nerve cells
d. Has an equal pump rate or transport for both ions
e. Has a high affinity binding site for Na+ on the outside of the membrane
2. IPSP’s are:
a. Caused by a decrease in the amount of transmitter released
b. Electrotonic potentials
c. Unaltered by temporal summation
d. Potentials generated by voltage regulated channels
e. Found primarily in the autonomic nervous system
3. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system:
a. Generally has long preganglionic fibers
b. Results in vasodilation of skin arterioles
c. Has no effect on skeletal muscle metabolism
d. Releases norepinephrine from the postganglionic cell
e. More than one of the above is correct
4. The following are true about reflexes:
a. They require at least two synapses
b. In the thoracic region of the spinal cord, they may involve parasympathetic
neurons
c. They can not be inhibited by higher brain centers
d. Visceral afferents may activate somatic efferents
e. They play no role in the regulation of tissue blood flow
5. The Potassium (K+) equilibrium potential:
a. Affects the resting potential in nerve and skeletal muscle cells
b. Is generally a positive potential
c. Becomes more positive if K+ builds up within the cell
d. Would not be affected by poisoning the Na+-K+ pump
e. Of skeletal muscle might become more negative with intense contractile
activity
6. If substance X is actively transported:
a. The transport rate will increase linearly with concentration
b. It will not be affected by like molecules
c. It could be water
d. The process could not be distinguished from facilitated diffusion
e. It would be transported against the concentration gradient
7. The Na+ equilibrium potential:
a. Will influence the action potential spike height
b. Can be determined by the Donnan equilibrium equation
c. Will become less positive if extracellular Na+ increases
d. Will become less positive if intracellular K+ increases
e. Is generally about the same as the EK+
For questions 8-11 use Figure 1.
8. All three cells (a, b, and c) have the following in common:
a. They are likely all nerve cells
b. Show influx of cations (Na+ or Ca2+) at points 3, 8, and 12
c. Show increasing Na+ conductance at points 5, 10, and 14
d. They have absolute refractory periods of the same duration
e. Rapidly opening Na+ channels at points 3, 8, and 12
9. The following is true about cell 1b:
a. It is an SA nodal cell
b. At point 7 K+ conductance is low
c. Point 9 corresponds to an increasing intracellular Ca2+
d. Point 8 is dominated by Ca2+ influx
e. It would remain unaltered by an increasing heart rate
10. Increasing parasympathetic activation would:
a. Have no effect on point 1
b. Have no effect on point 7
c. Slow the depolarization of point 8
d. Slow the depolarization of point 11
e. Have no effect on any of the cells (a, b or c)
11. K+ conductance is increasing at point:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
e. 8
12. Hypothalamic releasing hormone(s) are important in:
a. Regulating the release of posterior pituitary hormones
b. The control of insulin
c. Regulating FSH
d. The control of the adrenal hormone epinephrine
e. Regulating ventilation
13. The following would characterize the anterior pituitary:
a. It is important in regulating ovulation in the female
b. It synthesizes and releases the hormone ACTH
c. It synthesizes and releases the hormone prolactin
d. It receives portal vessel blood flow from the hypothalamus
e. All of the above are correct
14. Plasma glucagon:
a. Release is stimulated by high blood glucose
b. Activates gluconeogenesis in the liver
c. Inhibits glycogenolysis
d. Would inhibit cAMP production
e. Is released after a high carbohydrate meal
15. The fixed receptor model of hormone action:
a. Is used by aldosterone
b. Requires more than one membrane protein
c. Requires soluble receptors in the cell nucleus
d. Is used by testosterone
e. Is used by cortisol
16. Skeletal muscle oxidative metabolism:
a. Is higher in fast type II than slow type I fibers
b. In maximal exercise is limited by low ADP
c. Generates acetyl CoA from the breakdown of fats, carbohydrates,
and proteins
d. Generates more ATP per liter of oxygen with fat compared to carbohydrate
oxidation
e. Has a greater capacity than that observed in heart cells
17. The DHP receptor:
a. Is a t-tubular protein found in both heart and skeletal muscle
b. Is the Ca2+ release channel of the SR
c. Does not depend on extracellular calcium for proper function
d. Is sometimes referred to as the Ryanodine receptor
e. Is a soluble protein that binds calcium
18. The sliding filament theory of skeletal muscle contraction indicates
that:
a. The thick myosin filament shortens
b. The thin actin filament shortens
c. Myosin slides over actin as the actin heads pull on myosin
d. Actin slides over myosin as the myosin heads pull on actin
e. The I-band stays constant
19. The rate of tension development in skeletal muscle is:
a. Rate limited by the rate of myosin binding to actin
b. Rate limited by Ca2+ binding to troponin-C
c. Is dependent on the protein parvalbumin
d. Is not different between fiber types
e. Would not be affected by myosin light chain phosphorylation
20. Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle can be distinguished by:
a. The low mitochondrial content in cardiac fibers
b. That smooth muscle is innervated by sympathetic nerves
c. Ca2+ binding to calmodulin activates contraction in smooth but not
cardiac muscle
d. The lack of striations in cardiac muscle
e. Only smooth muscle has tropomyosin
21. Shortening velocity:
a. Is independent of the myosin ATPase activity
b. Is the same as the isometric contraction time
c. Will increase as the load on the muscle increases
d. Will decrease if intracellular H+ increases during intense exercise
e. Is higher in the fast type IIa compared to the fast type IIx fiber
22. Insulin:
a. Lack leads to high ketone body production and acidosis
b. Stimulates cell cAMP production
c. Acts via the mobile receptor model
d. Is released from the adrenal cortex
e. Is a catabolic hormone that activates pathways of carbohydrate metabolism
23. Epinephrine binding to ?-receptors:
a. Activates smooth muscle contraction.
b. Reduces cAMP content.
c. Leads to the activation of a protein kinase and phosphorylation
of myosin kinase
d. Requires only one membrane bound protein to induce a cellular effect.
e. Would reduce heart rate
24. Alveolar ventilation (VA):
a. Is preferentially distributed to the top of the lung.
b. Is likely normal if the average PAO2 = 70.
c. If depressed would cause PACO2 to increase.
d. Is generally equal in volume to the dead space ventilation.
e. Would decrease if expired minute volume (VE) increased.
25. Intrapleural pressure:
a. Becomes more negative with the contraction of the diaphragm.
b. Is generally equal to atmospheric pressure.
c. Becomes more negative during expiration
d. At a given % of vital capacity is unaffected by lung compliance
e. Is always the same as alveolar pressure.
26. Regarding the electrical activation of the heart:
a. It originates in the AV node
b. The P wave proceeds atrial contraction
c. It travels over the ventricle and then the atria.
d. It depolarizes the epicardium and then the endocardium of the ventricle.
e. All of the above are correct.
27. An elevated venomotor tone:
a. Would decrease stroke volume
b. Results from activation of arterioles.
c. Would reduce blood pressure
d. Would increase venous compliance
e. Results from sympathetic stimulation.
28. Systolic compared to diastolic pressure:
a. Increases more with aging.
b. Both increase the same with an increase in SV.
c. Increases more with an increase in HR.
d. Would normally be 100 mmHg higher.
e. Would be unaltered by sympathetic nerve stimulation
29. The electocardiogram (ECG):
a. Provides information on the force output of the heart.
b. QRST interval lengthens as HR increases.
c. Can provide information on the position of the heart.
d. Will generally have the highest amplitude on lead 1 (right arm to
left arm).
e. T-P interval increases as HR increases.
30. In the cardiac cycle with a HR of 70 per minute:
a. Atrial contraction occurs before the P wave.
b. Atrial contraction is important in ventricular filling.
c. Ventricular relaxation is followed by the T wave.
d. The rapid ejection phase of the ventricle follows a period of isovolumetric
contraction.
e. With the QR signal the aorta valve opens.
31. The oxygen concentration of the arterial blood:
a. Will increase linearly with PaO2
b. Is carried primarily bound to hemoglobin
c. Would be unaffected by carbon monoxide
d. Has a similar dissociation curve (PO2 versus O2 content) as observed
in muscle cells
e. More than one of the above are correct
32. As blood passes through tissue capillaries of contracting skeletal
muscle:
a. H+ produced will be in part buffered by hemoglobin
b. An increase in PCO2 would increase O2 delivery to the tissue
c. Blood HCO3- would increase
d. An elevated temperature would increase O2 delivery to the tissue
e. More than one of the above are correct
33. CO2 carriage in the blood:
a. Is primarily as dissolved CO2
b. Is primarily by binding to hemoglobin
c. Is primarily as HCO3-
d. Is not affected by changes in PO2
e. Increases in the lung
34. Breathing frequency is:
a. Increased by central chemoreceptors sensing low PO2
b. Unaffected by lung stretch receptors
c. Increases linearly with work load from rest to maximal exercise
d. Increased by low PO2 inhibition of K+ channels at peripheral chemoreceptor
e. Is unaffected by changes in blood pH
35. The blood supply to the kidney
a. has no effect on the solute concentration of the peritubular fluid
b. makes up less than 5 % of the resting cardiac output
c. is filtered at the glomerular capillaries
d. participates in the active reabsorption of urea
e. more than one of the above are correct
36. Given: Plasma inulin concentration = 0.4 mg/ml
Urine inulin concentration = 50 mg/ml
Urine flow rate = 1.0 ml/min
What is the glomerular filtration rate (ml/min)?
a. 100
b. 125
c. 150
d. 200
e. none of the above are correct
37. The proximal tubule of the nephron
a. reabsorbs HCO3- but not Cl-
b. produces a filtrate with varying osmolarity depending on plasma
aldosterone levels
c. is important in regulating urine volume (ml/min)
d. reabsorbs ~ 2/3 of the filtered Na+ at high as well as normal GFR
e. participates in the structure known as the juxtaglomular apparatus
38. Renal reabsorption of phosphate
a. shows a transport maximum in the physiological range
b. is important in regulating plasma phosphate
c. can be regulated by parathyroid hormone
d. more than one of the above are correct
e. all of the above are correct
39. Urea
a. is secreted into the loop of henle
b. reabsorption in the distal tubule is stimulated by ADH
c. reabsorption in the collecting duct is unaffected by ADH
d. reabsorption is unaffected by Na+ reabsorption
e. clearance is usually equal to the GFR
40. The loop of henle
a. is longer in cortical than juxtamedullary nephrons
b. is freely permeable to water in the descending limb
c. is freely permeable to water in the ascending limb
d. actively reabsorbs Na+ in the descending limb
e. is unimportant in allowing the kidney to concentrate urine (preserve
water)
41. Low blood pressure will
a. increase the firing of the aortic and carotid baroreceptors
b. inhibit ADH release
c. reduce the Na+ in the distal tubules which will lead to an increased
Renin secretion
d. have no direct effect on the juxtaglomular cells of the afferent
arterials
e. more than one of the above is correct
42. Which of the following would increase plasma Aldosterone
a. low plasma volume
b. low plasma Na+
c. low plasma K+
d. more than one of the above
e. all of the above
43. If the HCO3-/CO2 ratio is 20 blood pH is
a. 7.4
b. 7.3
c. 7.2
d. 7.0
e. undeterminable from the data given
44. HCO3-
a. is a good buffer as the carbonic anhydrase reaction has a pK near
the pH of blood
b. reabsorption by the kidney depends upon high carbonic anhydrase
content in the tubular cells
c. is reabsorbed independently from H+ secretion
d. reabsorption is independent of Na+ reabsorption
e. reabsorption is unaffected by plasma pH
45. NH3
a. is quantitatively the most important renal filtrate buffer
b. functions to help supply cations allowing greater Na+ reabsorption
c. production increases in the face of an increased fixed acid production
d. is produced in tubular cells from the amino acid glutamine
e. all of the above are correct
46. In the collecting duct
a. water reabsorption can occur independently of solute reabsorption
b. water reabsorption does not occur unless ADH is present
c. net secretion of urea occurs
d. the filtrate will become hypoosmotic in the presence of high ADH
e. more than one of the above are correct
47. The phosphate buffer system
a. goes from H2PO4 to HPO4 as the filtrate passes through the collecting
duct
b. has no effect on HCO3- reabsorption
c. is important in renal secretion of H+
d. plays no role in Na+ reabsorption
e. more than one of the are correct
48. If a substance S meets the requirements to be used in the determination
of GFR, it can be concluded that
a. S will show net reabsorption in the proximal tubule
b. The amount of S filtered must equal the amount excreted
c. The clearance of S will be greater than the clearance of inulin
d. S will show net secretion in the distal tubule
e. More than one of the above are correct
49. The following data were obtained from a patient at Mount Sinai Hospital
plasma concentration of S = 2 mg/ml
volume of urine produced per min = 5 ml/min
urinary concentration of S = 60 mg/ml
clearance of inulin = 100 ml/min
From these data it can be concluded that
a. S can be used to measure GFR
b. The clearance of S is 125 ml/min
c. S shows net secretion
d. S shows net reabsorption
e. more than one of the above are correct
50. K+
a. reabsorption would increase as the filtration flow rate decreased
b. excretion is decreased as plasma pH decreases
c. handling by the proximal tubule is variable sometimes showing net
reabsorption at other times net secretion
d. is regulated by hormones
e. more than one of the above are correct
51. The vasa recta system
a. actively pumps Na+ into the peritubular fluid
b. originates from the glomerular afferent arterioles
c. senses a low Na+ load and secretes renin
d. allows renal blood flow with little affect on the peritubular solute
concentration
e. reabsorbs water from the peritubular fluid as it goes from the cortex
through the medulla regions of the kidney
52. A decreased blood pH at a constant CO2 means
a. blood HCO3- will be high
b. blood H+ content will be low
c. the work of breathing compared to the control condition would be
unaffected
d. alveolar ventilation would be increased
e. the kidney would secrete less H+
53. Respiratory acidosis
a. might result from diabetes
b. one observes hypoventilation
c. plasma HCO3- is increased but H+ is reduced
d. plasma CO2 is low
e. the kidney will compensate by decreasing HCO3- reabsorption
54. Renal blood flow
a. can be directly measured using para-aminohippuric acid (PAH)
b. is equal to the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
c. is unaffected by angiotensin II
d. will increase as blood pressure decreases
e. more than one of the above are correct
55. The solute gradient surrounding the nephrons:
a. Is in part dependent on ADH
b. Is in part dependent on Urea reabsorption by the collecting duct
c. Is in part due to the passive reabsorption of Na+
d. Decreases with high renal blood flow
e. More than one of the above are correct
56. Given a Tm for glucose of 375 mg/min, a blood glucose = 300 mg/100
ml blood, and a normal GFR then:
a. An increase in GFR would cause a parallel increase in glucose reabsorption
b. Glucose would appear in the urine
c. The individual is hypoglycemic
d. A and B are correct
e. B and C are correct
57. Renin:
a. Is release from the proximal tubule of the nephron
b. Release is stimulated by high blood pressure
c. Release is stimulated by low tubular Na+
d. Directly stimulates aldosterone release from the adrenal gland
e. Increase will result in an increased GFR
58. High blood pressure:
a. Is sensed by aortic and carotid receptors to stimulate the sympathetic
nerves
b. Would increase the GFR
c. Would cause release of atrial natriuretic peptide from the heart
which would inhibit rennin release
d. More than one of the above are correct
e. All of the above are correct
59. An inulin filtrate/plasma concentration ratio of 10 indicates
a. That 1/10 of the filtrate has been reabsorbed
b. That 2/3 of the filtrate has been reabsorbed
c. That 9/10 of the filtrate has been reabsorbed
d. Nothing about the % of filtrate reabsorbed
e. Is the usual ratio at the end of the proximal tubule
60. Na+:
a. Reabsorption in the distal tubule increases in the presence of aldosterone
b. Reabsorption by the tubular cells shows a transport maximum (Tm)
c. May be secreted by the distal tubule
d. Excretion decreases at high tubular flow rates
e. Generally there is no Na+ in the urine
For questions 61-70 select the letter
(a) if a change in A will result in a change in the same direction
in B
(b) if a change in A will result in a change in the opposite direction
in B
(c) if a change in A will not necessarily result in a change in B
61. A. length of loop of henle
67. A. T-P interval of ECG
B. gradient in peritubular fluid
B. Heart rate
62. A. Pressure in Bowman’s capsule
68. A. Starvation
B. GFR
B. Blood cortisol
63. A. CO2
69. A. Water concentration
B. H+ secretion
B. Oamosis
64. A. Alveolar ventilation
70. A. Heart contractility
B. HCO3- reabsorption
B. Total peripheral resistance
65. A. EPSP amplitude
B. frequency of action potentials
66. A. Activity of medullary DRG cells
B. Blood pH
Correct Answers
1. c
2. b
3. d
4. d
5. a
6. e
7. a
8. b
9. c
10. d
11. d
12. c
13. e
14. b
15. b
16. c
17. a
18. d
19. a
20. c
21. d
22. a
23. c
24. c
25. a
26. b
27. e
28. a
29. c
30. d
31. b
32. e
33. c
34. d
35. c
36. b
37. d
38. e
39. a
40. b
41. c
42. d
43. a
44. b
45. e
46. a
47. c
48. b
49. c
50. e
51. d
52. d
53. b
54. a
55. e
56. e
57. c
58. d
59. c
60. a
61. a
62. b
63. a
64. c
65. a
66. c
67. b
68. a
69. a
70. c
Final Exam Curve
A >155
AB 148-155
B 133-147
BC 127-132
C 120-126
CD 105-119
D 90-104
F <90
Final Grade Curve (based on total points of 650)
A >530
AB 520-530
B 480-519
BC 450-479
C 400-449
CD 360-399
D 330-359
F <330